Why is E=0 a not acceptable value for phi?
On an exam recently, I was given a potential well problem and asked to show the characteristic equation was given by the one in the picture. I was told that E=0 is not an acceptable solution for Phi. Please, why exactly is E=0 not an acceptable solution for Phi? (LHS=RHS=0) Thanks.
Problem 2.8 from the text book 'Quantum Mechanics' second edition by David J. Griffiths. See attached file for full problem description.
An excited atom has a configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p 3d is in the state with the greatest possible total angular momentum. Find the magnetic moment of the atom in ther of Bohr magneton.
If an atom has a state of s= 3/2 and l=2 and zero magnetic momentum what is the total angular momentum
This question is from the text book 'OPTICS' fourth edition by Eugene Hecht. Thank you so much for your help
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